AIIMS MSc Nursing 2026: this reference guide covers the two-year postgraduate nursing programme, specialisations and admission requirements described in the 2026 prospectus. Check the official admission information for the relevant session before applying. MSc Nursing at AIIMS: Detailed Information 1. What is MSc Nursing? MSc Nursing (Master of Science in Nursing) is a 2-year postgraduate […]

Written by Harish GandhiPublished by Kanika’s Nursing AcademyPublished August 12, 2026Updated October 27, 2026

The application deadline listed on this page has passed. Check the official source for results, counselling or subsequent notices.

OrganizationAIIMS New Delhi = All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi.

Locationall Over India

Vacancies249 Seats

Salary / pay scaleVerify in the current official recruitment notice

QualificationB.Sc. (Hons.) Nursing B.Sc. Nursing (Post-Certificate) Post-Basic B.Sc. Nursing B.Sc. Nursing — 4-year course The degree must be from a recognized university/institution, and the educational institution must be recognized by the State Nursing Council.

Applications openMarch 25, 2026

Last date24/4/2026

AIIMS MSc Nursing 2026: this reference guide covers the two-year postgraduate nursing programme, specialisations and admission requirements described in the 2026 prospectus. Check the official admission information for the relevant session before applying.

MSc Nursing at AIIMS: Detailed Information

1. What is MSc Nursing?

MSc Nursing (Master of Science in Nursing) is a 2-year postgraduate nursing programme. At AIIMS, it is designed to develop advanced clinical nursing competence along with skills in education, nursing management, leadership and research. The 2026 prospectus specifies the duration as 2 years, with the academic session commencing in August.

AIIMS states that after completing the programme, a student should be able to:

- Apply nursing and allied-science concepts, theories and principles in a nursing specialty.
- Demonstrate advanced competence in nursing and allied health practice.
- Work effectively as a nursing educator and manager.
- Demonstrate leadership and initiate changes in healthcare delivery.
- Conduct nursing research and interpret/use research findings.
- Continue professional learning and advancement.

2. MSc Nursing Specializations

AIIMS Current Delhi lists the following MSc Nursing specialties for the 2026 session:

- Cardiological / CTVS Nursing

- Oncological Nursing

- Neurosciences Nursing

- Nephrological Nursing

- Critical Care Nursing

- Paediatric Nursing

- Psychiatric Nursing

- Obstetrical & Gynaecological Nursing

- Community Health Nursing

- Trauma & Emergency Nursing

Other AIIMS campuses offer somewhat different combinations. For example, the 2026 prospectus includes Forensic Nursing, Orthopaedic Nursing, Emergency & Trauma Nursing, Nephro-urology Nursing, etc., depending on the institute.

What these specialties generally mean

Specialty

Main focus

Critical Care Nursing

ICU, critically ill patients, ventilators, emergency management

Cardiological/CTVS Nursing

Cardiac patients, cardiac surgery and cardiovascular care

Oncology Nursing

Cancer care, chemotherapy, radiation-related nursing care, symptom management

Neurosciences Nursing

Stroke, neurological disorders, neurosurgery and rehabilitation

Nephrological Nursing

Kidney disease, dialysis and renal transplantation-related care

Paediatric Nursing

Infants, children and adolescents

Psychiatric Nursing

Mental-health disorders and psychiatric care

OBG Nursing

Pregnancy, childbirth, postpartum and gynaecological conditions

Community Health Nursing

Public health, community programmes and preventive care

Trauma & Emergency Nursing

Trauma, emergency assessment and acute care

3. Eligibility for MSc Nursing

For the general AIIMS MSc Nursing programme, the 2026 prospectus requires:

Educational qualification

You should have one of the following:

- B.Sc. (Hons.) Nursing
- B.Sc. Nursing (Post-Certificate)
- Post-Basic B.Sc. Nursing
- B.Sc. Nursing: 4-year course

The degree must be from a recognized university/institution, and the educational institution must be recognized by the State Nursing Council.

Minimum marks

Category

Minimum aggregate

General/UR

60%

OBC (NCL)

60%

EWS

60%

SC

55%

ST

55%

Nursing registration

You must be registered as:

RN, RM: Registered Nurse, Registered Midwife

with a State Nursing Council.

Selected candidates can submit the Nursing/Midwifery registration certificate at the time of seat allocation/joining, according to the prospectus.

4. Is work experience required?

For the general MSc Nursing specialties, the eligibility section does not specify one year of work experience.

However, there is an key exception:

AIIMS Raipur: MSc Nursing in Forensic Science

The prospectus specifically requires:

- Registered Nurse and Registered Midwife/equivalent.
- B.Sc. Nursing/B.Sc. (Hons.) Nursing/B.Sc. Post-Basic Nursing.
- Minimum 55% aggregate.
- Qualification from an institution recognized by the Indian Nursing Council.
- At least 1 year of work experience after B.Sc. Nursing/B.Sc. (Hons.) Nursing.
- For Post-Basic Nursing, 1 year of work experience before or after the course.

So, don’t assume work experience is required for every MSc Nursing specialty.

5. Can final-year B.Sc. Nursing students apply?

Yes, subject to the conditions in the prospectus.

Candidates who are due to appear in the qualifying examination, or have appeared and are awaiting results, may apply. However, they must provide proof of passing the qualifying examination, including required tenure/internship, on or before 31 July 2026, with the required percentage. Otherwise, their entrance-examination performance will not be considered.

Selected candidates must also provide proof that their nursing college was recognized when documents are verified.

6. Entrance Examination

This is one of the most important parts.

AIIMS MSc Nursing entrance pattern: 2026

Feature

Details

Exam

AIIMS MSc Nursing Entrance Examination

Duration

90 minutes

Questions

90 MCQs

Maximum marks

90

Language

English

Exam location

Delhi/NCR/Delhi as specified by AIIMS prospectus

Negative marking

Yes

Correct answer

+1

Incorrect answer

- 1/3

Unanswered

0

The prospectus explicitly states that AIIMS has not prescribed a syllabus for the examination.

Negative marking

This is important for preparation:

- Correct = +1
- Wrong = 1/3
- Unanswered = 0
- Multiple responses are negatively marked.

Therefore, random guessing can reduce your score.

7. Minimum qualifying cutoff

The prospectus states that the minimum cutoff is:

50th percentile

in the competitive entrance examination for eligibility.

However, 50th percentile should not be considered a safe admission score. Admission is competitive and seat allocation depends on merit, category, choices and available seats.

8. How is admission decided?

Admission is based on performance in the entrance examination. Other AIIMS campuses participating in the common process use the same entrance examination, and admission is based on merit-cum-choice.

The seat-allocation process works broadly as follows:

- Entrance examination.

- Merit/percentile preparation.

- Seat-allocation rounds.

- Candidate chooses institution/specialty according to available options.

- Seat is allotted according to merit + eligibility + category + seat availability.

- Medical examination.

- Document verification.

- Payment of required fees.

- Joining.

The first and second seat-allocation rounds call candidates according to the prescribed merit/category procedure; the final open round allows candidates meeting the 50th-percentile requirement to participate.

9. Tie-breaking

If two candidates obtain equal marks, AIIMS uses:

- Candidate with less negative marks gets preference.

- If still unresolved, the older candidate gets preference.

This makes accuracy particularly important.

10. Number of seats at AIIMS New Delhi

For August 2026, AIIMS New Delhi has 34 sanctioned MSc Nursing seats, plus 12 additional seats for AIIMS New Delhi in-service Nursing Officers/Nursing Tutors. The in-service seats are not transferable to the open category.

AIIMS New Delhi: 34 seats

Specialty

Total seats

Cardiological/CTVS Nursing

4

Oncological Nursing

4

Neurosciences Nursing

4

Nephrological Nursing

4

Critical Care Nursing

4

Paediatrics Nursing

4

Psychiatric Nursing

4

Obstetrical & Gynaecological Nursing

2

Community Health Nursing

2

Trauma & Emergency Nursing

2

Total

34

The prospectus notes that the number of seats can change before/at seat allocation.

11. Seats at other AIIMS

The major 2026 seat positions include:

AIIMS

MSc Nursing seats

New Delhi

34

Jodhpur

33

Bhopal

26

Bhubaneswar

25

Kalyani

24

Raipur

22

Bathinda

18

Mangalagiri

14

Deoghar

13

Patna

12

Nagpur

10

Gorakhpur

10

Bilaspur

8

These numbers are from the August 2026 seat tables in the prospectus and can be amended before final allocation. For example, Jodhpur has 33 seats, Kalyani 24, Deoghar 13, and Bathinda 18.

12. Reservation

At AIIMS New Delhi, the prospectus gives the following reservation framework:

- OBC: 27%
- SC: 15%
- ST: 7.5%
- EWS: 10%
- PwBD: 5% horizontal reservation for Indian Nationals.

For OBC-NCL/EWS candidates, the certificate must meet the Central Government requirements; a state-only certificate may not be accepted for the reserved category.

13. 2026 Important Dates

For the August 2026 session, the prospectus gives:

Event

Date

Registration started

25 March 2026

Registration closed

24 April 2026, 5 PM

Final accepted/rejected status

30 April 2026

Correction of deficiencies

30 April–3 May 2026

MSc Nursing admit card

15 June 2026 tentative

MSc Nursing entrance exam

20 June 2026

Result

Date to be declared

Seat allocation

Dates to be declared

Important: Since today is August 2026, these 2026 application/examination dates have already passed. If you’re planning for the next AIIMS MSc Nursing session, you should use the next prospectus rather than assuming these dates will repeat exactly.

14. Application fee

For the 2026 AIIMS application:

Category

Application fee

General/UR

₹2,000

OBC-NCL

₹2,000

SC

₹1,600

ST

₹1,600

EWS

₹1,600

PwBD

Exempted

Transaction charges are additional where applicable. Payment is through credit card, debit card or net banking.

15. Fees after admission

For AIIMS New Delhi, the prospectus lists:

- Registration fee:₹25
- Tuition fee for M.Sc./MSc Nursing:₹700
- Pot money:₹480
- Caution money:₹100
- Hostel security:₹1,000
- National Medical Library facility, if desired: additional ₹50
- Nursing students residing in hostel have compulsory mess charges of ₹700/month, subject to revision.

The prospectus also warns that fees and charges can be revised by the institute.

16. Stipend

A major advantage of AIIMS MSc Nursing is the stipend.

For the 2026 prospectus, the listed stipend is generally:

₹15,000 per month

for MSc Nursing at several AIIMS campuses, including New Delhi, Jodhpur, Rishikesh, Raipur, Bhubaneswar, Patna, Gorakhpur, Nagpur, Mangalagiri, Deoghar, Bibinagar, Bathinda, Kalyani and Bhopal, subject to the specific institute’s provisions.

For example, AIIMS Jodhpur explicitly states ₹15,000/month.

17. Hostel

Hostel availability varies between AIIMS campuses.

The 2026 prospectus lists hostel availability for MSc Nursing at many AIIMS, while some campuses state that it is subject to availability. For example, AIIMS Delhi lists hostel availability as Yes for MSc Nursing, whereas Jodhpur lists it as “as per availability.”

So hostel should not be assumed to be guaranteed at every campus.

18. Penalty for leaving the course

This is an important point before accepting a seat.

The discontinuation penalty varies by institute. Examples from the 2026 prospectus:

- AIIMS Delhi: ₹5,000
- AIIMS Jodhpur: ₹1,00,000
- AIIMS Rishikesh: ₹50,000
- AIIMS Patna: ₹1,00,000
- Several other AIIMS: ₹5,000

AIIMS Bhopal has a particularly important condition: for MSc Nursing students leaving after the open-round counselling/admission closure, the penalty is at least ₹1 lakh or the stipend drawn until leaving, whichever is greater.

19. Medical examination

After selection, candidates must undergo a medical examination by a medical board appointed by the respective institute.

If the medical board declares the candidate medically unfit, admission will not be granted, and the next candidate in merit may be considered.

20. Documents you should keep ready

For document verification, the prospectus lists documents including:

- AIIMS admit card
- Class 10/Matriculation certificate showing date of birth
- Nursing degree/provisional certificate
- Detailed mark sheets
- Migration certificate
- State Nursing Council registration certificate
- NOC if employed with Central/State Government or PSU
- Disability certificate, if applicable
- Tenure completion certificate where required
- Internship completion certificate where applicable
- Appropriate SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS certificate, if applicable.

21. What is the MSc Nursing curriculum like?

One important point:AIIMS explicitly says that it has not prescribed a syllabus for the entrance examination.

For the degree programme itself, the emphasis is on advanced specialty nursing, education, management, leadership and research. The stated programme outcomes make it clear that this is not simply an extension of B.Sc. Nursing clinical training; it prepares students for higher-level professional responsibilities.

In practical terms, during an MSc Nursing programme you can expect a combination of:

- Advanced specialty nursing
- Clinical practice
- Nursing education
- Nursing administration/management
- Nursing research
- Research methodology
- Dissertation/thesis work
- Teaching-related activities
- Clinical and academic assignments

The exact curriculum and clinical rotation structure depends on the specialty and AIIMS campus.

22. Career opportunities after MSc Nursing

After MSc Nursing, common career directions include:

Clinical

- Clinical Nurse Specialist
- Senior/advanced practice nursing roles
- Specialty department nurse
- ICU/Critical Care nurse
- Oncology nurse
- Cardiac/CTVS nurse
- Neuroscience nurse
- Paediatric nurse
- Psychiatric nurse

Teaching

- Nursing Tutor
- Assistant Professor/Lecturer, subject to applicable institutional/regulatory requirements
- Clinical instructor
- Nursing education roles

Administration

- Nursing administration
- Nursing supervisor/manager
- Quality and patient-safety roles
- Hospital administration-related nursing positions

Research

- Nursing research
- Clinical research
- Research assistant/coordinator
- Academic research
- Further progression toward Ph.D. in Nursing

The AIIMS programme itself specifically emphasizes the roles of educator, manager, leader and nursing researcher.

23. How difficult is AIIMS MSc Nursing?

It is a highly competitive entrance examination, mainly because the number of seats is limited.

For example, AIIMS New Delhi has only 34 regular MSc Nursing seats, distributed among 10 specialties.

The exam has only 90 questions in 90 minutes, so you have approximately 1 minute per question. Since there is 1/3 negative marking, preparation should emphasize both knowledge and accuracy.

24. How should you prepare?

Because AIIMS says no specific entrance syllabus has been prescribed, a sensible preparation strategy is to build a strong foundation from your B.Sc. Nursing curriculum.

Priority areas

1. Fundamentals of Nursing

- Nursing process
- Basic procedures
- Infection control
- Patient safety
- Nursing theories

2. Medical-Surgical Nursing

- Cardiovascular
- Respiratory
- Neurological
- Renal
- Gastrointestinal
- Endocrine




- Oncology
- Critical care

3. Community Health Nursing

- Epidemiology
- National health programmes
- Primary healthcare
- Community diagnosis
- Biostatistics

4. Child Health Nursing

5. Mental Health/Psychiatric Nursing

6. Obstetric & Gynaecological Nursing

7. Nursing Education

- Teaching methods
- Evaluation
- Curriculum
- Educational technology

8. Nursing Research

- Research designs
- Sampling
- Data collection
- Basic statistics
- Evidence-based practice

9. Nursing Administration

- Management principles
- Leadership
- Staffing
- Supervision
- Hospital organization

Exam practice

Because the paper is 90 MCQs/90 minutes with 1/3 marking, practice should focus on:

- Timed MCQ sets
- Previous-style AIIMS questions
- Rapid recall
- Eliminating wrong options
- Avoiding unnecessary guesses
- Full-length 90-question mock tests

Most Important

AIIMS MSc Nursing 2026 = 2-year postgraduate nursing programme + entrance examination + specialty training + research/education/management preparation.

The key eligibility requirements are B.Sc. Nursing/B.Sc. Hons. Nursing/Post-Basic Nursing + 60% for General/OBC/EWS or 55% for SC/ST + RN/RM registration.

The entrance exam is 90 MCQs, 90 marks, 90 minutes, English, with 1/3 negative marking, and AIIMS has not prescribed a specific syllabus.

If your goal is AIIMS MSc Nursing preparation, I can also give you a complete subject-wise syllabus/important topics, 6-month study plan, recommended books, previous-year-question strategy, and expected score/rank strategy specifically for AIIMS MSc Nursing.

Click here for Previous Paper:

Atal Medical & Research University, H.P.
(A State Govt. University)

(SLBS Govt. Medical College & Hospital Campus, Ner Chowk, Mandi, H.P.)
Website:- www.amruhp.ac.in , Email: [email protected], Phone No. +91-XXXXXXXXXX

Answer Keys

K a M. Sc. Nursing Course ni Paper Code- 2603 kaheld on 2nd August, 2026
Morning's Shift (11:00 AM to 01:00 PM)

N
If a candidate does not satisfy wuith rthe key answers, he/she can make representation
with documentary proof to the COE, Atsal iMnedical and Research University, HP, at
Nerchowk, Distt. Mandi, HP-17g5008 through email on
[email protected] up to 06.08.20 2A6 by 05:00 PM and thereafter, no
representation will be entertained under any circumstancesa.

d
e
m
-Sd/-

(Dr. Rajesh Kuymar)
Controller of Examinations

Atal Medical & Research University, HP,

Ner Chowk, Distt. Mandi.

1 | Page

(To be filled by the candidate) Booklet S. No. ____________________

Roll No. (In figures) ____________________________________________________________________

Roll No. (In words) _____________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : _________________________________________________________________

Center of Examination : _________________________________________________________________

Total No. of QuKestiaons : 100 n M. Sc. Nursing Entrance Test i Paper Code- 2603
Time Allowed : 2 Hours k a Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT NOTE: 's
(i) OMR Answer Sheet will be sup pNlied by the Examination Centre Superintendent for answering the questions.
(ii) Use Blue/Black Ink/ Ball Pen only, to udarken the appropriate circle in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(iii) Darken one circle deeply for each question rins the OMR Answer Sheet, as faintly darkened circle might be rejected by the Optical Scanner.
(iv) Darkening of more than one circle shall be rejeicnted by the scanner. Over-writing, cutting, erasing or use of White Fluid is not allowed.
(v) Before dealing with the question paper, fill-up theg req uired information with Blue/Black Ball Pen correctly both in the Question Booklet and in the OMR Answer Sheet.
(vi) Do not fold the OMR Answer Sheet nor put any markA here and there to avoid rejection by the
Optical Scanner. c
(vii) Write Roll. No. carefully on the OMR Answer Sheet and darken thae appropriate circle properly.
(viii) Each question carries One Mark. There will be No Negative Markding.
(ix) Use of Calculator is not allowed. e
(x) No over-writing, cutting, erasing or use of white fluid is allowed. m
(xi) Rough work be done on the sheet(s) at the end.

(xii) Mobile telephones (even on switch-off mode) and such other electronic devyices are not allowed
inside the examination hall.

(xiii) The question paper-booklet will be retained by the candidate after the entrance test is over.

(xiv) The Carbon Copy of the OMR Answer Sheet may be retained by the candidate only after permission

is granted by the Invigilator.

2 | Page

Rough Page -

Kanika's Nursing Academ
y

3 | Page

Medical Surgical Nursing

1. A 64-year-old patient with long- Which pathophysiological mechanism

standing hypertension receives the BEST explains the patient’s

first dose of prazosin at night. Thirty condition?

minutes later, the patient becomes a. Reduced pulmonary perfusion

dizzy while attempting to use the secondary to pulmonary embolism

washrooKm. BP is 84/56 mmHg, pulse b. Destruction of alveolar-capillary
118/min, anad the patient appears pale membrane causing air trapping
and diaphorentici.What is the most c. Diffuse alveolar fibrosis causing
appropriate imkmeadiate nursing restrictive ventilatory defect
action? 's d. Bronchial hyperresponsiveness

a. Assist the patient back t o Nbed and causing reversible airway narrowing
reassess hemodynamic status u ANSWER- b

b. Administer the next antihypertensrivse
dose with fluids ing 3 A 32-year-old patient is newly c. Encourage deep breathing to reduce dAiagnosed with drug-sensitive
sympathetic activity pulmconary tuberculosis under the

d. Place the patient in high Fowler’s National Tuberculosis Elimination

position to improve ventilation Programmdee (NTEP). The physician
ANSWER- a plans to initiatme the newer shortened
2. A 68-year-old chronic smoker presents daily treatmeynt regimen

with increasing dyspnea, barrel chest, recommended in updated

and use of accessory muscles. ABG WHO/NTEP guidelines. Before

shows: starting therapy, the nurse reviews

pH: 7.32 PaCO₂: 60 mmHg HCO₃⁻: baseline investigations and

30 mEq/L PaO₂: 58 mmHg counseling needs.Which nursing

action is MOST important before

initiation of anti-tubercular therapy?

4 | Page

a. Advise the patient to discontinue rapid-acting insulin. Capillary refill is

treatment once sputum becomes delayed, pulse is 116/min, and the

negative patient is unable to follow commands

b. Assess baseline liver function and consistently.What is the nurse’s

counsel regarding adherence and priority action?

adverse effects a. Administer subcutaneous glucagon

c. Delay treatment until all family immediately

membeKrs complete chest radiography b. Check capillary blood glucose level
d. Start corticaostneroid therapy routinely immediately to prevent immuinke reactions c. Initiate diabetic ketoacidosis protocol
ANSWER- b a' d. Prepare the patient for urgent s hemodialysis
4. A patient receiving hNigh-dose ANSWER- b

intravenous furosemide devuelorps
generalized weakness ansd i 6. A patient admitted after traumatic
palpitations. ECG reveals flattened T ng brain injury develops unilateral
waves and prominent U pAupillary dilation, bradycardia,
waves.Which electrolyte imbalance irregculaar respirations, and declining MOST likely explains these Glasgowd Coma Scale score.Which
findings? complicatioen should the nurse

a. Hypercalcemia suspect first? m
b. yHypomagnesemia a. Uncal herniation secondary to raised
c. Hypokalemia intracranial pressure

d. Hypernatremia b. Neurogenic shock

ANSWER- c c. Acute hypovolemic shock due to

occult bleeding

5. A patient with type 1 diabetes d. Spinal cord compression causing

becomes restless, confused, and autonomic dysfunction

diaphoretic 1 hour after receiving ANSWER- a

5 | Page

 ST depression in leads I and aVL

7. A patient receiving gentamicin for  Sinus bradycardia

sepsis reports tinnitus, difficulty Which interpretation is appropriate?

hearing conversations, and decreased a. Acute anterior wall myocardial

urine output. Serum creatinine has infarction due to LAD occlusion

increased from 0.8 mg/dL to 2.1 b. Acute pericarditis with diffuse ST

mg/dL within 48 hours.Which elevation

nursingK action is MOST appropriate? c. Hyperkalemia causing
a. Continue tahernapy and reassess after pseudoinfarction pattern hydration ik d. Acute inferior wall myocardial
b. Administer loop diuaret'ics to improve infarction with possible right renal clearance s ventricular involvement c. Withhold the medication aNnd nuotify ANSWER- d the physician immediately r
d. Reduce oral fluid intake to prevenst in9. A couple with a previous child fluid overload g affected by β-thalassemia major
ANSWER- c sAeeks counseling before planning
anocthear pregnancy.Which nursing 8. A 67-year-old man with a history of interventdion demonstrates best

hypertension and type 2 diabetes evidence-baesedm practice? presents to the emergency a. Advising the coupyle to avoid future
department with severe central chest conception permanently

pain radiating to the left arm for 45 b. Reassuring the couple that recurrence

minutes. He is diaphoretic and risk is negligible

restless. BP is 86/58 mmHg, pulse c. Recommending genetic counseling

48/min, and SpO₂ is 92% on room air. and carrier screening for both parents

ECG shows: d. Advising empirical iron

 ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, supplementation before conception

and aVF ANSWER- c

6 | Page

c. Position the patient supine to reduce

10. On postoperative day 3, a patient fatigue during swallowing

develops fever, tachycardia, localized d. Continue oral medications with

erythema, warmth, and purulent supervision to prevent interruption

discharge at the incision site. ANSWER- b

Laboratory reports show elevated

WBC count and serum lactate of 3.2 12. A patient discontinues prescribed

mmol/. KWhich interpretation is most antibiotics after symptom
appropriatea? n improvement on day 2 of therapy. a. Normal inflamikmatory response Three days later, symptoms recur
associated with tissuae h'ealing with greater severity.Which b. Early localized surgical site infection mechanism best explains this
with evolving systemic res pNonse outcome?

c. Hypersensitivity reaction to suturre a. Increased innate immune activation
material without infection si following partial treatment

d. Delayed collagen formation causing ngb. Enhanced drug metabolism causing
wound dehiscence rAeduced therapeutic effect

ANSWER- b c. Acccelearated mutation of host inflammadtory cells
11. A patient with acute ischemic stroke d. Survival ande proliferation of partially

suddenly develops dysphagia and wet resistant micromorgaynisms
voice quality during oral medication ANSWER- d

administration.Which nursing action

has the highest priority? 13. A 58-year-old diabetic patient reports

a. Encourage thickened oral fluids to epigastric discomfort, diaphoresis,

maintain hydration and mild dyspnea. BP is 88/60

b. Keep the patient NPO and request mmHg, HR 118/min, and SpO₂ is

formal swallowing assessment 91% on room air.Which nursing

action should be prioritized?

7 | Page

a. Obtain 12-lead ECG and prepare for halos .What is the most appropriate

cardiac evaluation nursing action?

b. Administer oral antacids for a. Administer digoxin with antiemetic

suspected gastritis support

c. Encourage oral fluid intake to b. Administer potassium after digoxin

improve hypotension administration

d. Position the patient flat and withhold c. Hold digoxin and notify the physician

supplemKental oxygen immediately
ANSWER- a a d. Reassess pulse after ambulation and
14. A patient witnh ihkemoglobin level of administer if above 60/min

5.8 g/dL develoaps ' tachycardia, ANSWER- c dyspnea on exertion, sand fatigue 16. A patient with 40% total body surface
despite normal lung a usNcultation area burns develops hypotension,
findings. Which mechanism ubrest tachycardia, oliguria, and cool
explains these manifestations? si clammy extremities within 6 hours of

a. Increased blood viscosity impairing ng injury. Which condition should the
microcirculation nAurse suspect first?

b. Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity a. Carcdiogenic shock secondary to
leading to tissue hypoxia myocardidal depression

c. Excess erythropoietin secretion b. Hypovolemeic shock due to plasma
causing pulmonary congestion fluid loss my

d. Platelet dysfunction resulting in c. Neurogenic shock caused by

reduced oxygen diffusion autonomic instability

ANSWER- b d. Septic shock related to wound

contamination

15. Before administering digoxin, the ANSWER- b

nurse notes: Pulse: 48/min

Serum potassium: 3.0 mEq/L, 17. A patient with tibial fracture reports

Patient reports nausea and visual escalating pain despite opioid

8 | Page

administration. The extremity prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotic

appears pale and tense, with therapy. The patient also has

diminished distal pulses and abdominal cramping and

paresthesia.Which complication leukocytosis. Which condition

requires immediate intervention? should the nurse suspect first?

a. Acute compartment syndrome a. Ulcerative colitis exacerbation

b. Venous thromboembolism b. Clostridioides difficile-associated

c. PeripheKral neuropathy colitis
d. Complex reaginonal pain syndrome c. Viral gastroenteritis acquired in ANSWER- a ik hospital
a d. Lactose intolerance secondary to
18. A patient with s'esvere COPD altered diet

receiving high-flow oxyge nN becomes ANSWER- b
increasingly drowsy. ABG reuverals
rising PaCO₂ levels. Whicsh i
mechanism best explains this ng20. A patient undergoing chemotherapy
deterioration? hAas:

a. Reduced pulmonary blood flow Absolucte neutrophil count (ANC):
causing dead-space ventilation 450/mam³d ,Temperature: 38.4°C ,Oral

b. Increased oxygen affinity of mucositis present

hemoglobin reducing tissue delivery Which nursing minter
y

vention is most

c. Acute respiratory alkalosis due to important?

hyperventilation a. Encourage fresh fruits and raw salads

d. Suppression of hypoxic respiratory to improve nutrition

drive causing CO₂ retention b. Minimize oral hygiene to prevent

ANSWER- d mucosal trauma

c. Restrict visitors with symptoms of

19. A hospitalized patient develops infection

profuse watery diarrhea after

9 | Page

d. Allow fresh flowers to improve A. 90 ppm at production level & 60

psychological well-being ppm at consumer level

ANSWER- c B. 60 ppm at production level & 15

ppm at consumer level

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING C. 30 ppm at production level & 60

ppm at consumer level

21. Health promotional strategies are all D. 30 ppm at production level & 15

EXCEPKT: ppm at consumer level
A. Insecticidaal spray Ans: D
B. Potable watern suipkply
C. Life style modificatiaon' 24. Which of the following is NOT a D. Chemoprophylaxis s characteristic of non- communicable Ans: D Nu disease (NCDs): r A. Long latent period
22. Community health nurse inB. Well defined etiological agent demonstrating preparation of gC. Multifactorial causation

homemade ORS to the mothers of D. VAariable onset
under five children during home visit, Ans:B c
is one of the example of: ad

A. Intersectoral coordination 25. DASH is ane acronym for:
B.



Community participation A. Domestic apprmoachy to safe guard
C. Appropriate technology hypertension

D. Equitable distribution B. Domestic approach to stop

Ans:C hypertension

C. Dietary approach to safe guard

23. Prevention of Food Adulteration hypertension

(PFA) Act, 1954 has laid down D. Dietary approach to stop

standard for level of Iodisation of hypertension

salt: Ans:D

10 | Page

26. Denominator in MMR (Maternal 29. Which of the following is not

Mortality Ratio): transmitted through sexual route:

A. Total No. of Live births in the same A. Hepatitis B

area and same year B. Hepatitis E

B. No. of Maternal death of C. Hepatitis C

reproductive age group D. Hepatitis D

C. Total No. of deaths of the Ans: B

reproduKctive age group in same area
and same yaear 30. Post-exposure prophylaxis against

D. Midyear popunlatiiokn HIV should be started within:
Ans:A a' A. 24 hours s B. 48 hours
27. Quarantine against a partic uNlar C. 72 hours

disease is done for a period of: u r D. 6 hours
A. Maximum incubation period si Ans: C
B. Minimum incubation period ng
C. Serial interval 31. SAcotch tape swab is done to check
D. Period of infectivity for cwhich intestinal parasite:
Ans:A A. Ascarias d
B. Pinworm e
28. Glycosylate haemoglobin (HbA1C) C. Hookworm m y

reflects the mean blood glucose level D. Schistosoma

of previous: Ans:B

A. 15 days

B. 1 months 32. Which of the following is NOT true

C. 3 months about the characteristics of good

D. 4 months research:

Ans: C A. Orderly and systematic process

B. Conduct using large amount of funds

11 | Page

C. Finding solution of problem D. Desensitizing

D. Begin with clearly defined purposes Ans: A

Ans: B

36. What is another term that refers to a

33. Which of the following can best be confounding extraneous variable:

described as a categorical variable: A. Last variable

A. Age B . F irst variable

B. AnnualK income C. Third variable
C. Weight a n D. Fourth variable D. Religion ik Ans: C
Ans: D a
'

s 37. Which of the following is the correct 34. Which of the following needN(s)u to be order of Stevens’ four levels of obtained when doing research withr measurement:
children: sinA. Ordinal, Nominal, Ratio, Interval A. Informed consent from the parent or gB. Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, Ratio
guardian C. IAnterval, Nominal, Ordinal, Ratio

B. Assent from the child if he or she is D. Ratico,a Interval, Nominal, Ordinal capable Ans: B d
C. Informed consent from the child e
D. Both a and b 38. When a citatiomn (Vyancouver style )
Ans: D includes more than ____ authors,

only the surname of the first author

35. Ideally, the research participant's is cited followed by et al.

identity is not known to the A. 3

researcher. This is called: B. 4

A. Anonymity C. 5

B. Confidentiality D. 6

C. Deception Ans: D

12 | Page

39. Commonly used measures of central 42. Which hormone maintains

tendency are all of the following pregnancy?

EXCEPT: a) Progesterone

A. Mean b) Oxytocin

B. Median c) Prolactin

C. Mode d) FSH

D. Chi-square test Answer = a) Progesterone

Ans: D K
a 43. The most common benign tumor of
40. In which of thne fiokllowing uterus is:

nonrandom samplinga techniques a) Fibroid
does the researcher ask' sthe research b) Carcinoma participants to identify to heNr c) Cystocele
potential research participants: ur d) Endometriosis

A. Snowball si Answer = a) Fibroid
B. Convenience ng
C. Purposive 44. TAhe medical termination of
D. Quota pregcnaancy is legally permitted in Ans: A India undder the:
a) IPC Act e
Obstetrics & Gynaecology, Nursing b) MTP Act my

education & Administration c) PNDT Act

d) Factory Act

41. The normal lie of the fetus is: Answer = b) MTP Act

a) Transverse lie

b) Oblique lie 45. All of the following are true

c) Longitudinal lie regarding ‘’after pains’’ except:

d) Shoulder lie a) More common in multiparous

Answer = c) Longitudinal lie women

13 | Page

b) Pain worsen when infant suckles d) Strongly alkaline

c) Decreases in intensity by 3rd Answer = c) Acidic

postpartum day

d) More common in primiparous 49. The greenish discoloration of

women amniotic fluid indicates:

Answer = d) More common in a) Fetal distress

primiparous women b) Maternal anemia

K c) Infection
46. Sliding sigans nhelp in the diagnosis d) Normal labor of: ik Answer = a) Fetal distress

a) Cervical pregnancay
b) APH 's 50. The condition of excessive amniotic c) Pregnancy Nu fluid is known as: d) Preterm labor r a) Oligohydramnios
Answer = a) Cervical pregnancy sin b) Polyhydramnios g c) Hydatidiform mole

47. The causative organism of cervical dA) Amniotomy
cancer is commonly: Acnswer = b) Polyhydramnios
a) HIV ad
b) HPV 51. Bloom’s taxeonomy includes which
c) HBV three domains?m y
d) HSV a) Physical, mental, emotional

Answer = b) HPV b) Cognitive, affective, psychomotor

c) Knowledge, skill, attitude

48. The normal pH of vagina in d) Theory, practice, evaluation

reproductive age of women is: Answer = b) Cognitive, affective,

a) Alkaline psychomotor

b) Neutral

c) Acidic

14 | Page

52. Academic policies are published b) Symposium

rules that govern the implementation c) Demonstration method

of the: d) Panel discussion

a) Cocurricular programs Answer = c) Demonstration method

b) Cultural programs

c) Academic programs 56. The first step in management

d) Occasional programs process is:

Answer K= c) Academic programs a) Staffing
a b) Planning
53. Microteachingn isi kprimarily used for c) Directing

improving: a d) Controlling
a) Clinical skills 's Answer = b) Planning b) Teaching skills N
c) Research skills ur 57. Supervision in nursing aims to:
d) Administrative skills si a) Punish employees

Answer = b) Teaching skills ng b) Improve quality of patient care
cA) Reduce staff number
54. The process of determining the d) Icncrease patient stay

achievement of educational Answear =d b) Improve quality of
objectives is called: patient care e
a) Guidance my
b) Counseling 58. The money given to the employee at

c) Evaluation the end of his service or upon his

d) Supervision resignation, in recognition of his

Answer = c) Evaluation service to the organization is called:

a) Retirement

55. Which teaching method is most b) Gratuity

effective for skill -based learning? c) Pension

a) Seminar d) Superannuation

15 | Page

Answer = b) Gretuity (c) Leukaemia

(d) Wilms Tumour

59. Material management in hospital Answer = (a) Hodgkin lymphoma

includes:

a) Patient counseling 62. Osmolality of the modified/reduced

b) Procurement and storage of Osmolality ORS recommended by

supplies WHO

c) CondKucting surgeries (a) 230mOsm/L
d) Clinical teacahing only (b) 240mOsm/L
Answer = b) Pnrociukrement and (c) 245mOsm/L

storage of supplies a' (d) 250mOsm/L s Answer = (c) 245mOsm/L
60. Accreditation is generally usNed ufor accepting r 63. Double bubble sign seen on

a) Quality level of an institution si radiography indicates
b) Finance level of an institution ng(a) Congenital Megacolon
c) Quantity level of an institution (b) IAlleal atresia
d) Faculty level of an institution (c) Duocdenal atresia
Answer = a) Quality level of an (d) Pylorica stdenosis
institution Answer =e (cm) Duodenal atresia y

64. As per IMNCI color coding, child

Child Health Nursing, Biochemistry, having some dehydration will be

Biophysics classified under which color code

(a) Pink

61. Reed Sternberg cells are found in (b) Blue

which of the following condition: (c) Yellow

(a) Hodgkin lymphoma (d) Green

(b) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Answer = (c) Yellow

16 | Page

65. Which of the following is not a dehydration as per assessment. What

principle of working of phototherapy should be next step to rehydrate the

(a) Geometric photoisomerization child.

(b) Structural isomerization (a) Start oral liquids

(c) Oxidation (b) Start breast feeding

(d) Reduction (c) Give ORS

Answer = (d) Reduction (d) Start with IV fluid

K Answer = (d) Start with IV fluid
66. Which of thae nfollowing is scoring system for premaitkurity in neonates 69. Oedipus complex is seen in
(a) Silverman scoring a (a) Boys between age of 3 to 5 years of
(b) Ballard scoring 's age
(c) Downes scoring N (b) Girls between age of 3 to 5 years of
(d) Apgar scoring ur age

Answer = (b) Ballard scoring sin (c) Boys between age of 7 to 9 years of g age
67. To assess developmental dysplasia (d) GAirls between age of 7 to 9 years of

of Hip which of the following test is age c
used Anaswder = (a) Boys between age

(a) Galeazzi test of 3 to 5 yeaers mof age (b) Barlow maneuver y
(c) Ortolani maneuvers 70. Correct Sequence of stages of

(d) All of the above Pathophysiology of Pneumonia

Answer = (d) All of the above include

(a) Grey hepatization, Red hepatization,

68. An infant of 8 months yrs suffering Engorgement

from diarrhea is bought to Pediatric (b) Red hepatization, Engorgement,

emergency and is assessed for Grey hepatization

dehydration. Child is having severe

17 | Page

(c) Engorgement, Red hepatizationand 74. Bohr effect is related to which of the

Grey hepatization following:

(d) None of the above (a) DNA replication

Answer = (c) Engorgement, Red (b) Protein synthesis

hepatization and Grey hepatization (c) Oxygen binding to hemoglobin

(d) Enzyme binding process

71.Heat transfer from direct contact with Answer =(c) Oxygen binding to

hot surfKace is called hemoglobin
(a) Radiation a
(b) Conduction nik 75. Christmas disease results from
(c) Convection a deficiency of factor
(d) Evaporation 's (a) VIII

Answer = (b) Conducti onN u (b) IX r (c) XI
72. Elctrolyte responsible for sin (d) XII extracellular fluid osmolarity is : g Answer = (b) IX
(a) Potassium A
(b) Calcium 76. Whcicha of the following is considered (c) Magnesium as good cdholesterol that helps to
(d) Sodium reduce the reiskm of coronary artery Answer = (d) Sodium disease y
(a) High density Lipoprotein

73. Resistance to flow is called: (b) Low density Lipoprotein

(a) Pressure (c) Triglycerides

(b) Viscosity (d) Cholesterol

(c) Elasticity Answer = (a) High density Lipoprotein

(d) Density

Answer = (b) Viscosity

18 | Page

77. Which of the flowing are fat soluble (c) Treacheoesophageal atresia

vitamins (d) Treacheoesophageal fistula

(a) Vitamin A, B, C and D (e) Answer = (d) Treacheoesophegeal

(b) Vitamin A, D, E and K fistula

(c) Vitamin A, B, C and K

(d) Vitamin A, B, C and E Mental Health Nursing

Answer = (b) Vitamin A, D, E 81. A patient states, “People are

and K K plotting to kill me.” This is:
an A. Delusion of grandeur 78. End product of aicktion of salivary B. Delusion of persecution

amylase is a' C. Thought broadcasting (a) Sucrose s
(b) Maltose

D. Illusion

N Ans: B
(c) Fructose ur
(d) Glucose sin82. A patient hears voices commenting Answer = Maltose g on his actions. This is:
AA. Illusion
79. Dermatitis, Diarrhoea and dementia B. Acuditory hallucination

are seen due to deficiency of C. Delausidon
(a) Niacin D. Thought eblock
(b) Riboflavin Ans: B my
(c) Thiamine

(d) Pyridoxine 83. A client repeatedly checks locks due

Answer = (a) Niacin to fear of theft. This indicates:

A. Phobia

80.Abnormal connection between B. Obsession

treachea and esophagus is called as C. Compulsion

(a) Esophageal atresia D. Delusion

(b) Esophageal fistula Ans: C

19 | Page

84. Which is a negative symptom of C. Fluoxetine

schizophrenia? D. Diazepam

A. Hallucination Ans: C

B. Delusion

C. Flat affect 88. A patient becomes anxious in

D. Thought insertion crowded places due to fear of escape

Ans: C difficulty. This is:

K A. Social phobia
85. A patient sahowns flight of ideas, B. Agoraphobia increased energyi,k and decreased C. Specific phobia

sleep. Diagnosis: a' D. Panic disorder A. Depression s Ans: B
B. Mania Nu 89. A patient relives traumatic war C. Anxiety r events with flashbacks. Diagnosis:
D. OCD sin A. OCD Ans: B g B. PTSD

CA. GAD
86. A patient is unable to recognize D. Scchizophrenia

illness despite evidence. This is: Ans: Ba d
A. Insight level 1 e
B. Insight level 3 90. The most apprompriayte nursing
C. Judgment intervention during panic attack:

D. Reality testing A. Give advice

Ans: A B. Stay with patient

C. Ignore behavior

87. Which is the drug of choice for D. Ask many questions

OCD? Ans: B

A. Haloperidol

B. Lithium

20 | Page

91. Which defense mechanism involves D. Acetylcholine

attributing own feelings to others? Ans: B

A. Regression

B. Projection 95. Modified ECT differs from

C. Sublimation unmodified ECT by:

D. Denial A. Voltage

Ans: B B. Use of anesthesia

K C. Duration
92. A patient laughs and cries suddenly D. Frequency

without reason. Tikhis is: Ans: B
A. Flat affect a
B. Labile affect 's 96. A patient refuses food believing it is C. Blunted affect N poisoned. This is:
D. Incongruent affect ur A. Hallucination
Ans: B sin B. Delusion g C. Obsession

93. Which scale is used to assess DA. Phobia
depression severity? Ansc: B
A. MMSE ad
B. Hamilton Rating Scale 97. Which theraepy focuses on changing
C. Glasgow coma scale maladaptive thmoughyts?
D. APGAR A. Psychoanalysis

Ans: B B. Cognitive therapy

C. Behavior therapy

94. Which neurotransmitter is most D. Group therapy

involved in schizophrenia? Ans: B

A. Serotonin

B. Dopamine 98. The nurse feels emotionally

C. GABA overinvolved with patient. This is:

21 | Page

A. Transference D. Dementia

B. Countertransference Ans: B

C. Resistance

D. Projection 100. Primary prevention in mental

Ans: B health includes:

A. Rehabilitation

99. Which condition shows loose B. Early diagnosis

associatKion? C. Health education
A. Depressaion D. Drug therapy
B. Schizophreniai k Ans: C
C. Anxiety a

's
N
ursing Academ

y

22 | Page

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AIIMS MSc Nursing: preparation and official notices

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Harish Gandhi

Director & Founder, Kanika’s Nursing Academy Leading academic and strategic development of the academy Developing exam-oriented nursing education programs Guiding faculty and ensuring quality teaching standards Overseeing video lectures, test series, MCQs, and study resources Mentoring nursing aspirants for competitive examinations Promoting technology-enabled and accessible nursing education

Master of Business Administration (MBA) with specialization in Finance & Marketing 10+ years of experience as a Director in the education sector Extensive experience in educational administration, academic management, and institutional development Expertise in strategic planning, marketing, student engagement, and education management Experienced in developing and managing competitive examination preparation programs Dedicated to providing quality, accessible, and technology-enabled education to nursing aspirants

Harish Gandhi Director, Kanika’s Nursing Academy Harish Kumar is the Director of Kanika’s Nursing Academy, dedicated to providing quality, exam-oriented education and structured preparation for nursing aspirants. Under his leadership, the academy focuses on concept-based learning, comprehensive study material, video lectures, test series, previous-year questions, and mock examinations to help students prepare confidently for competitive nursing examinations. His vision is to make quality nursing education accessible, practical, and examination-focused, empowering students to improve their knowledge, accuracy, and confidence. Vision “Prepare. Practice. Perform.” To guide nursing aspirants toward their career goals through quality education, consistent practice, and effective exam preparation.

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